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The plural possessive is ladies'. lady is singular, so if you were referring solely to one woman's shoes, it would be the lady's shoes. as for your second question, i'm assuming you're referring to a group of women in your salutation of them, so it would be good morning, ladies. and as you're addressing them directly, the comma preceding ladies is necessary. And is this always expressed in a positive/polite tune of meaning Yes, milady comes from my lady
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Milady (from my lady) is an english term of address to a noble woman Did it originally appeared in english countries, or It is the female form of milord
And here's some background on milord
If you are wondering why we don't write ladies's, it is because ladies is one of the exceptions, along with girls', parents', players', weeks' and even klingons' it can get a bit niggly with names too Aristophanes' plays, but jesus's miracles and (usually) james. Having heard the phrase, faint heart never won fair lady for the third time in very short span, i'm determined to find out its origin This seems rather a poor act of classification,.
Otherwise, as elliot frisch has suggested, lady is the term you want But in my opinion, if you're talking about clients of yours, be gender neutral Lady can have negative implications in this setting because it is often used in a negative fashion, e.g That lady wouldn't stop talking about.
The phrase means 'the lady of the house', but in the context of the derivation of the surname tiplady they think 'lady' might imply a man's mistress.
Even when lady macbeth says And take my milk for gall, that would definitely support the literal humorism theory, but i still don't understand how we get from milk to blood (too much of the blood humor supposedly being the problem). Where did the saying ladies first originate
